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retired_dogQuote
IrixQuote
retired_dog
the cited law has absolutely nothing to do with unreleased recordings!
The German copyright law has in § 85 (3) a text passage: "If the phonogram has not been published within this period or has been used for authorised communication to the public, the right shall expire 50 years after the production of the phonogram." This could apply to unreleased recordings. The question would be if a studio tape (or a tape with live recordings) is to be considered a phonogram.
§ 85 UrhG deals with the rights of producers of phonograms (=phonographic sound recordings), not necessarily only record companies, but basically everybody who is responsible for a certain sound recording, by simply doing it (could be an amateur who is recording birds voices in a wood ... or a bootlegger recording a live show ... remember that discussion?) or is paying for a studio or live recording (could be the band themselves in case of the Stones = Promotone, Management, Broadcasters like the BBC or KBFH etc.).
So, of course, a studio tape (or a tape with live recordings) is to be considered a phonogram.
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slewan
Note that it doesn't matter – (only) for the question of copyright expiration – whether the recording was/is made legally or illegally.
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ds1984Quote
slewan
Note that it doesn't matter – (only) for the question of copyright expiration – whether the recording was/is made legally or illegally.
Well in case of unlawful fixation the artist has the moral right to prevent the tape to be published.
Unlawful fixation is not the point of the law about "copyright duration"
By definition an unlawful fixation can't be copyrighted.
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slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewan
Note that it doesn't matter – (only) for the question of copyright expiration – whether the recording was/is made legally or illegally.
Well in case of unlawful fixation the artist has the moral right to prevent the tape to be published.
Unlawful fixation is not the point of the law about "copyright duration"
By definition an unlawful fixation can't be copyrighted.
absolutely right. But my point was/is that not about the copyright but about the copyright expiration. After the copyright has expired/has been lost it doesn't matter from what kind of source the phonograph comes from – anybody can publish, sell, broadcast it…
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ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewan
Note that it doesn't matter – (only) for the question of copyright expiration – whether the recording was/is made legally or illegally.
Well in case of unlawful fixation the artist has the moral right to prevent the tape to be published.
Unlawful fixation is not the point of the law about "copyright duration"
By definition an unlawful fixation can't be copyrighted.
absolutely right. But my point was/is that not about the copyright but about the copyright expiration. After the copyright has expired/has been lost it doesn't matter from what kind of source the phonograph comes from – anybody can publish, sell, broadcast it…
You mean an UNlawful fixation can become lawful?
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slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewan
Note that it doesn't matter – (only) for the question of copyright expiration – whether the recording was/is made legally or illegally.
Well in case of unlawful fixation the artist has the moral right to prevent the tape to be published.
Unlawful fixation is not the point of the law about "copyright duration"
By definition an unlawful fixation can't be copyrighted.
absolutely right. But my point was/is that not about the copyright but about the copyright expiration. After the copyright has expired/has been lost it doesn't matter from what kind of source the phonograph comes from – anybody can publish, sell, broadcast it…
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slewanQuote
ds1984
You mean an UNlawful fixation can become lawful?
of course not.
but once the copyright has expired the question of lawfully recorded or not has become irrelevant.
The logic behind this is: Once the copyright has expired, you can no longer infringe it
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ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984
You mean an UNlawful fixation can become lawful?
of course not.
but once the copyright has expired the question of lawfully recorded or not has become irrelevant.
The logic behind this is: Once the copyright has expired, you can no longer infringe it
I would say if such a case happened, doing commercial exploitation of unlawful fixed work after 50 years, would end in front of a court.
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slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984
You mean an UNlawful fixation can become lawful?
of course not.
but once the copyright has expired the question of lawfully recorded or not has become irrelevant.
The logic behind this is: Once the copyright has expired, you can no longer infringe it
I would say if such a case happened, doing commercial exploitation of unlawful fixed work after 50 years, would end in front of a court.
it obviously doesn't – think about all the 50+ years old bootleg recordings that are being sold legally
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ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984
You mean an UNlawful fixation can become lawful?
of course not.
but once the copyright has expired the question of lawfully recorded or not has become irrelevant.
The logic behind this is: Once the copyright has expired, you can no longer infringe it
I would say if such a case happened, doing commercial exploitation of unlawful fixed work after 50 years, would end in front of a court.
it obviously doesn't – think about all the 50+ years old bootleg recordings that are being sold legally
All of the phonogram I know have been sourced from :
1) lawful communication to the public (broadcast).
2) lawful tape fixation (private copy)
3) the fixation has entered the public domain.
In the nineties famous record chain in France, the FNAC, has been selling bootleg for several years.
Then you could think these record were lawful.
They weren't, the chain was sent to court and was fined.
I can see the same with Amazon now.
Well one day they will be caugh.
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slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984
You mean an UNlawful fixation can become lawful?
of course not.
but once the copyright has expired the question of lawfully recorded or not has become irrelevant.
The logic behind this is: Once the copyright has expired, you can no longer infringe it
I would say if such a case happened, doing commercial exploitation of unlawful fixed work after 50 years, would end in front of a court.
it obviously doesn't – think about all the 50+ years old bootleg recordings that are being sold legally
All of the phonogram I know have been sourced from :
1) lawful communication to the public (broadcast).
2) lawful tape fixation (private copy)
3) the fixation has entered the public domain.
In the nineties famous record chain in France, the FNAC, has been selling bootleg for several years.
Then you could think these record were lawful.
They weren't, the chain was sent to court and was fined.
I can see the same with Amazon now.
Well one day they will be caugh.
well, in the 90s it was legal to sell bootlegs because of a 'hole' in EU law (which for some reason didn't protect recordings of US broadcasts from being sold in Europe) – I still remember the piles of the Rolling Stones' Live at Atlantic City in regular record stores. The Stones' lawyers were unable to ban them.
After the expiration of a copyright there's no way to sue anybody who's selling stuff that is now public domain. Based on what kind of law could such a person be prosecuted?
After the copyright expires, the case is somewhat similar to the cases in which the statute of limitations under criminal law has expired.
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retired_dogQuote
slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984
You mean an UNlawful fixation can become lawful?
of course not.
but once the copyright has expired the question of lawfully recorded or not has become irrelevant.
The logic behind this is: Once the copyright has expired, you can no longer infringe it
I would say if such a case happened, doing commercial exploitation of unlawful fixed work after 50 years, would end in front of a court.
it obviously doesn't – think about all the 50+ years old bootleg recordings that are being sold legally
All of the phonogram I know have been sourced from :
1) lawful communication to the public (broadcast).
2) lawful tape fixation (private copy)
3) the fixation has entered the public domain.
In the nineties famous record chain in France, the FNAC, has been selling bootleg for several years.
Then you could think these record were lawful.
They weren't, the chain was sent to court and was fined.
I can see the same with Amazon now.
Well one day they will be caugh.
well, in the 90s it was legal to sell bootlegs because of a 'hole' in EU law (which for some reason didn't protect recordings of US broadcasts from being sold in Europe) – I still remember the piles of the Rolling Stones' Live at Atlantic City in regular record stores. The Stones' lawyers were unable to ban them.
After the expiration of a copyright there's no way to sue anybody who's selling stuff that is now public domain. Based on what kind of law could such a person be prosecuted?
After the copyright expires, the case is somewhat similar to the cases in which the statute of limitations under criminal law has expired.
Yes, of course, different topics altogther: Legal loophole vs. public domain after copyright expiration.
Honestly, that's why it's a waste of time to discuss this any further because there's always someone like ds 1984 who throws different things together like apples and oranges and confuses matters even more instead of getting to the point.
Have fun with further (fruitless) discussions, but I'm out.
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slewanQuote
retired_dogQuote
slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984Quote
slewanQuote
ds1984
You mean an UNlawful fixation can become lawful?
of course not.
but once the copyright has expired the question of lawfully recorded or not has become irrelevant.
The logic behind this is: Once the copyright has expired, you can no longer infringe it
I would say if such a case happened, doing commercial exploitation of unlawful fixed work after 50 years, would end in front of a court.
it obviously doesn't – think about all the 50+ years old bootleg recordings that are being sold legally
All of the phonogram I know have been sourced from :
1) lawful communication to the public (broadcast).
2) lawful tape fixation (private copy)
3) the fixation has entered the public domain.
In the nineties famous record chain in France, the FNAC, has been selling bootleg for several years.
Then you could think these record were lawful.
They weren't, the chain was sent to court and was fined.
I can see the same with Amazon now.
Well one day they will be caugh.
well, in the 90s it was legal to sell bootlegs because of a 'hole' in EU law (which for some reason didn't protect recordings of US broadcasts from being sold in Europe) – I still remember the piles of the Rolling Stones' Live at Atlantic City in regular record stores. The Stones' lawyers were unable to ban them.
After the expiration of a copyright there's no way to sue anybody who's selling stuff that is now public domain. Based on what kind of law could such a person be prosecuted?
After the copyright expires, the case is somewhat similar to the cases in which the statute of limitations under criminal law has expired.
Yes, of course, different topics altogther: Legal loophole vs. public domain after copyright expiration.
Honestly, that's why it's a waste of time to discuss this any further because there's always someone like ds 1984 who throws different things together like apples and oranges and confuses matters even more instead of getting to the point.
Have fun with further (fruitless) discussions, but I'm out.
I don't consider this discussion to be fruitless. ds1984 might sometimes mix some things together that are different but he tries to understand the law and its consequences and is open to arguments.
To understand laws is not an easy task in case one is not used to read law and/or used to juridical thinking, of course.